An oncology team is evaluating a 47-year-old male inpatient who has had persistent fever despite ongoing antimicrobial therapy. He has been hospitalized for the past days receiving induction chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia. Six days prior to the current evaluation, his absolute neutrophil count dropped to , coinciding with a new-onset fever of (). At that time, comprehensive pan-culturing was performed, and empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam was initiated.
Currently, the patient's temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . He reports feeling exhausted but has no focal symptoms such as cough, dyspnea, sinus pain, or dysuria. Physical examination reveals a clean, non-tender central venous catheter insertion site. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. The absolute neutrophil count remains profoundly low at . All previous blood and urine cultures have remained sterile after six days of incubation. High-resolution computed tomography of the chest demonstrates no pulmonary nodules or infiltrates.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Add intravenous caspofunginCevap
- BAdd intravenous vancomycin
- CSwitch piperacillin-tazobactam to meropenem
- DDiscontinue piperacillin-tazobactam and start intravenous liposomal amphotericin B
- EContinue the current regimen and observe closely