A 72-year-old woman is evaluated on postoperative day 5 following an elective sigmoid colectomy for recurrent diverticulitis. She has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. She reports increasing incisional pain, a productive cough, and mild shortness of breath. Temperature is 38.7°C (101.7°F), blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 18/min. Pulse oximetry shows 94% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals a prolonged expiratory phase and scattered expiratory wheezes bilaterally. Jugular venous pressure is 6 cm H2O, and there are no crackles or lower extremity edema. The surgical incision has a 4-cm area of fluctuance, erythema, and purulent discharge. The wound is swabbed for culture, and Gram stain of the purulent fluid shows only Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The local hospital antibiogram demonstrates a less than 1% prevalence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select 2 answers)
- Open the infected portion of the surgical incisionCevap
- Administer inhaled ipratropium and albuterolCevap
- CAdminister intravenous furosemide
- DInitiate intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
- EOrder a lower extremity venous duplex ultrasound