A 62-year-old woman is evaluated on the third day of hospitalization for a central line-associated bloodstream infection. She has been receiving total parenteral nutrition through a central venous catheter for short bowel syndrome. Three days ago, she experienced the sudden onset of rigors, a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F), and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Blood cultures drawn from both the central catheter and a peripheral vein revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The catheter was promptly removed, and empiric intravenous vancomycin and cefepime were started. Today, she feels well and is afebrile with normal hemodynamics. Final blood culture results confirm the presence of Staphylococcus aureus in all bottles. Susceptibility testing indicates the isolate is resistant to penicillin but susceptible to oxacillin, cefazolin, and vancomycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate modification to her antimicrobial therapy?
- Change therapy to intravenous cefazolinCevap
- BSwitch to intravenous vancomycin monotherapy
- CSwitch to intravenous cefepime monotherapy
- DMake no changes to the current dual-drug regimen
- EChange therapy to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole