A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services after his roommates found him unable to walk. The patient states he has had severe, constant mid-back pain for the past two weeks, which became excruciating over the last 48 hours. Today, he developed profound weakness in both legs and has not been able to urinate since yesterday morning. His past medical history is significant for intravenous heroin use and a recent hospitalization for a cutaneous abscess that he left against medical advice. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Neurologic examination reveals strength in the bilateral lower extremities, absent patellar and Achilles reflexes, and decreased sensation to all modalities below the umbilicus. Digital rectal examination shows decreased anal sphincter tone. A bladder scan reveals of retained urine. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in the diagnostic or therapeutic management of this patient?
- AImmediate administration of high-dose intravenous dexamethasone
- BEmergent exploratory decompressive laminectomy
- CEmpiric intravenous antibiotics and serial neurologic examinations
- Emergent magnetic resonance imaging of the spineCevap
- ELumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis