A 71-year-old female resident of a long-term care facility was admitted to the hospital days ago with a temperature of (), rigors, and severe left-sided flank pain. Initial evaluation revealed marked left costovertebral angle tenderness. Laboratory testing demonstrated a leukocyte count of with a left shift. Urinalysis was strongly positive for leukocyte esterase, nitrites, and numerous bacteria. The patient was started on empiric intravenous meropenem and intravenous fluids.
Today (hospital day 4), the patient is hemodynamically stable, has been afebrile for the past hours, and her flank pain has significantly improved. She is eating a normal diet and is eager to return to her facility. Blood cultures drawn on admission remain negative. The admission urine culture grew colony-forming units/mL of *Escherichia coli*. Susceptibility testing results for the isolate are as follows:
| Antimicrobial Agent | Susceptibility |
|---|---|
| Ampicillin | Resistant |
| Ceftriaxone | Resistant |
| Cefepime | Resistant |
| Ciprofloxacin | Resistant |
| Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole | Resistant |
| Nitrofurantoin | Susceptible |
| Fosfomycin | Susceptible |
| Ertapenem | Susceptible |
| Meropenem | Susceptible |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- ATransition to oral nitrofurantoin
- BTransition to oral fosfomycin
- Transition to intravenous ertapenem and arrange for outpatient parenteral therapyCevap
- DContinue intravenous meropenem and arrange for outpatient parenteral therapy
- ETransition to oral ciprofloxacin