A 13-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents due to a 4-week history of dull, aching pain in his right anterior thigh and knee. He has no history of recent trauma, and he has been afebrile. His body mass index (BMI) is 34 kg/m². He walks with a noticeable limp, keeping his right foot externally rotated. On physical examination, internal rotation of the right hip is significantly limited and elicits pain. When the physician passively flexes the patient's right hip, the thigh obligatorily rotates outward. Radiographs of the pelvis demonstrate widening of the right proximal femoral physis with posterior and inferior displacement of the epiphysis relative to the femoral neck. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate non-weight bearing and surgical pinning in situCevap
- BRecommendation for weight loss, physical therapy, and NSAIDs
- CClosed reduction of the right hip followed by spica casting
- DReassurance and observation as this represents a benign developmental variant
- EAspiration of the right hip joint under ultrasound guidance