A 47-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is evaluated on hospital day 4 for ongoing management of a left foot infection. She initially presented to the emergency department with a deep, purulent ulcer on the plantar surface of her foot, surrounded by a 6-cm area of erythema and induration. On admission, she was febrile and had leukocytosis. She was started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam and underwent prompt surgical debridement. The surgeon noted no evidence of bone involvement, which was confirmed by a negative MRI of the foot. Today, her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. The surgical wound is clean with healthy granulation tissue, and the surrounding erythema has nearly resolved. Intraoperative deep tissue cultures now show heavy growth of methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) and Streptococcus agalactiae. Susceptibility testing indicates both isolates are susceptible to cefazolin, cephalexin, and ampicillin. The MSSA isolate is resistant to clindamycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Transition to oral cephalexinCevap
- BContinue intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CTransition to intravenous vancomycin and discontinue piperacillin-tazobactam
- DTransition to oral ciprofloxacin and clindamycin
- ETransition to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole