An -year-old man is evaluated in the preadmission clinic prior to a scheduled elective right total knee arthroplasty. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type diabetes mellitus, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He reports feeling well and specifically denies dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, gross hematuria, or flank pain. Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , pulse , and respirations . Physical examination is unremarkable, with no costovertebral angle tenderness or suprapubic pain. A routine preoperative urinalysis reveals trace leukocyte esterase, positive nitrites, and - white blood cells per high-power field. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management regarding this patient's urinary findings?
- Proceed with the scheduled surgery without targeted antimicrobial therapy for the urinary findingsCevap
- BPrescribe a preoperative course of oral ciprofloxacin
- CPostpone the arthroplasty until a urine culture is finalized
- DAdminister intravenous ceftriaxone specifically to sterilize the urinary tract
- EPrescribe oral nitrofurantoin to be taken for five days postoperatively