A -year-old woman is evaluated in the primary care clinic due to a -week history of progressive fatigue, generalized weakness, and low-grade fevers. She reports an unintentional weight loss of () over this period. Her medical history is significant for mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation. Five weeks ago, she underwent a complex root canal procedure. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a well-appearing, comfortable patient. Cardiac auscultation demonstrates a grade holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex and radiating to the axilla. Small, dark red, linear lesions are noted under the nail beds of her right index and middle fingers. The patient is hemodynamically stable without signs of acute heart failure. Three sets of peripheral blood cultures are obtained, and a transesophageal echocardiogram is scheduled. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the antimicrobial management of this patient?
- Defer antimicrobial therapy until blood culture results are finalizedCevap
- BInitiate empiric therapy with intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CInitiate empiric therapy with intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin
- DInitiate empiric therapy with oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- EInitiate empiric therapy with intravenous cefazolin