On the third day of hospitalization, a -year-old woman is re-evaluated during morning rounds. She was initially admitted for severe right flank pain, dysuria, nausea, and a temperature of (). She was empirically started on intravenous ceftriaxone for acute pyelonephritis. Today, the patient reports significant improvement in her symptoms and has tolerated a regular diet since yesterday evening. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Right costovertebral angle tenderness is no longer present. Blood cultures obtained at admission have shown no growth. Urine culture results are now available and demonstrate of *Escherichia coli*. The organism is susceptible to ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone, and meropenem; it is resistant to ampicillin and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Based on the patient's current clinical status and laboratory findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Switch to oral ciprofloxacin and plan for dischargeCevap
- BContinue intravenous ceftriaxone to complete a 7-day course
- CSwitch to oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and plan for discharge
- DEscalate therapy to intravenous meropenem
- EObtain a repeat urine culture to document bacterial clearance