Soru

A 4-day-old male neonate is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit. He was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks of gestation to a 26-year-old primigravida. Birth weight was $3400\text{ g}$. APGAR scores were 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. At $48\text{ hours}$ of life, he developed temperature instability, poor feeding, and lethargy. A full sepsis evaluation was performed, and empiric intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin were initiated. Current vital signs are temperature $37.1^\circ\text{C}$ ($98.8^\circ\text{F}$), heart rate $140/\text{min}$, and respiratory rate $42/\text{min}$ on room air.

Blood cultures obtained at symptom onset now demonstrate robust growth of *Streptococcus agalactiae* (Group B Streptococcus) that is exquisitely sensitive to penicillin G. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis is unrevealing. Physical examination today reveals an alert infant with a new scattering of erythematous macules containing central tiny yellow papules on the anterior chest, lacking any surrounding induration.

Laboratory studies drawn this morning show:

During bedside rounds, the mother expresses profound anger upon learning that her positive maternal Group B Streptococcus screening results were not transmitted from her outpatient clinic to the hospital during admission. She demands that the specific administrative staff member responsible for the omission face immediate disciplinary action.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?