A 68-year-old man with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the intensive care unit for acute hypercapnic respiratory failure and suspected community-acquired pneumonia. Upon arrival, he is hemodynamically stable but exhibits severe respiratory distress. Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. Shortly after intubation, his blood pressure drops to 78/45 mmHg and his heart rate increases to 122/min. Pulse oximetry shows 92% on an of 0.50. Physical examination reveals diffuse wheezing and right lower lobe crackles. A portable chest radiograph demonstrates hyperinflated lungs, a prominent right descending pulmonary artery, and a right lower lobe consolidation, without pulmonary venous congestion. Sputum Gram stain reveals numerous neutrophils and gram-positive, lancet-shaped diplococci. Bedside echocardiography shows a severely dilated right ventricle, a plethoric inferior vena cava, and systolic flattening of the interventricular septum (D-shaped left ventricle); the left ventricular ejection fraction is 65%. Arterial blood gas analysis on current ventilator settings reveals:
| Parameter | Value |
|---|---|
| 7.18 | |
| 70 mmHg | |
| 68 mmHg | |
| 26 mEq/L |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiate a norepinephrine infusion and administer ceftriaxoneCevap
- BAdminister an intravenous furosemide bolus to treat acute decompensated left heart failure
- CIncrease the ventilator respiratory rate to achieve a target PaCO2 of 47 mmHg based on Winter's formula calculation
- DInitiate meropenem and vancomycin for empiric broad-spectrum pneumonia coverage
- ETransport the patient immediately for a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram