A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic reporting the onset of frequent, watery, non-bloody diarrhea occurring up to times daily over the past days. He also notes mild, diffuse lower abdominal cramping. His medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Two weeks ago, he completed a 10-day course of oral amoxicillin-clavulanate for acute bacterial sinusitis. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Physical examination reveals mild diffuse abdominal tenderness with normal bowel sounds; there is no guarding or rebound tenderness. Laboratory testing shows a leukocyte count of and a serum creatinine of (baseline ). A stool nucleic acid amplification test is positive for *Clostridioides difficile* toxin genes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer oral fidaxomicinCevap
- BAdminister oral metronidazole
- CAdminister intravenous vancomycin
- DAdminister intravenous metronidazole
- ERefer for fecal microbiota transplantation