A 32-year-old gravida 3, para 2 woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mmHg, and pulse is 84/min. The fetal heart rate baseline is 145/min with moderate variability and no decelerations. A sterile vaginal examination reveals the cervix is 5 cm dilated and 80% effaced, with the fetal vertex at -2 station and bulging amniotic membranes. Shortly after the examination, the patient experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes with a large gush of clear fluid. The continuous fetal monitor immediately records an abrupt decrease in the fetal heart rate to 75/min that does not resolve over the next 3 minutes. A repeat vaginal examination reveals a soft, pulsatile, rope-like mass in the vaginal vault extending past the fetal presenting part. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Manually elevate the fetal presenting part and prepare for an emergency cesarean deliveryCevap
- BTransfer directly to the operating room for a cesarean delivery without vaginal manipulation
- CInitiate a normal saline amnioinfusion through a transcervical catheter
- DAdminister subcutaneous terbutaline to relax the uterus and observe for fetal heart rate recovery
- EContinue expectant management as this is a transient physiologic response to membrane rupture