A 19-year-old man comes to the university health clinic due to a painful swelling in his right axilla that has been worsening over the past 4 days. He is a collegiate wrestler and reports that several of his teammates have recently been treated for similar skin lesions. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg, pulse 74/min, and respirations 14/min. Physical examination shows a 3.5-cm, exquisitely tender, erythematous, and fluctuant nodule in the right axilla. There is no surrounding induration or erythema extending beyond the nodule, and no regional lymphadenopathy is appreciated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Incision and drainage of the lesionCevap
- BIncision and drainage followed by oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- COral cephalexin therapy
- DIntravenous vancomycin therapy
- ESwab of the overlying skin for bacterial culture