A 36-year-old nulligravida seeks medical advice because she has noticed red-tinged fluid staining her bra over the past three weeks. The leakage occurs spontaneously and is limited to her right side. She denies any associated breast pain, skin changes, or recent trauma. Menarche occurred at age 12, and her menstrual cycles are regular. She takes no medications and has no family history of breast or ovarian malignancy. On physical examination, vital signs are within normal limits. Careful palpation reveals no discrete breast masses or axillary lymphadenopathy. Gentle pressure around the right areola elicits a few drops of frankly bloody discharge from a single duct. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Diagnostic mammography and targeted ultrasoundCevap
- BMeasurement of serum prolactin and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels
- CReassurance and repeat clinical evaluation in 6 months
- DCytologic examination of the nipple discharge
- EMagnetic resonance imaging of the breast