A 74-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a long-term care facility due to progressive abdominal distension, severe pain, and recurrent vomiting for the past 48 hours. He has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus for 3 days. His medical history is significant for an open ventral hernia repair 8 years ago. On arrival, his temperature is 39.4°C (102.9°F), blood pressure is 85/50 mm Hg, pulse is 128/min, and respirations are 24/min. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended abdomen with diffuse rigidity, severe rebound tenderness, and absent bowel sounds. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 24,000/mm³ and a serum lactate level of 6.8 mmol/L. An upright abdominal radiograph demonstrates multiple dilated loops of small bowel with prominent air-fluid levels and a paucity of colonic gas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BNasogastric tube decompression and intravenous fluids
- CComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- DIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and clinical observation
- EIntravenous administration of sodium bicarbonate