A 68-year-old woman is evaluated in the preoperative clinic prior to an elective right total knee arthroplasty. Her past medical history is notable for osteoarthritis and well-controlled hypertension. The patient reports feeling well and specifically denies any dysuria, urinary frequency, suprapubic pain, or fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. As part of her preoperative workup, a urinalysis is obtained which demonstrates 15 white blood cells per high-power field and is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. A subsequent urine culture grows > colony-forming units/mL of *Escherichia coli*. Susceptibility testing shows the organism is sensitive to nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, ciprofloxacin, and ceftriaxone. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- APrescribe a 5-day course of oral nitrofurantoin
- BPostpone the surgery until a repeat urine culture is sterile
- Proceed with the scheduled surgery without specific treatment for the bacteriuriaCevap
- DPrescribe a 3-day course of oral ciprofloxacin
- EAdminister intravenous ceftriaxone for urinary tract infection prophylaxis prior to surgery