A 26-year-old woman, G1P0, at 16 weeks gestation is evaluated during a routine prenatal visit. She reports mild fatigue over the past month but is otherwise feeling well. She has no significant past medical history. Current medications include a daily prenatal vitamin.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals normal conjunctivae, no scleral icterus, and a gravid uterus consistent with gestational age.
Laboratory results are as follows:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | ||
| Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) | ||
| Red blood cell (RBC) count | ||
| Platelets | ||
| Leukocytes | ||
| Serum iron | ||
| Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) | ||
| Ferritin |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Hemoglobin electrophoresisCevap
- BReassurance and continuation of routine prenatal care
- CInitiate oral ferrous sulfate therapy
- DMeasure serum folate and vitamin B12 levels
- ESchedule a bone marrow aspiration
Cevap
The most appropriate next step is to perform hemoglobin electrophoresis to evaluate for thalassemia trait.
The patient presents with a profoundly microcytic anemia (MCV 65 fL) but has normal iron studies, including a ferritin level of 180 ng/mL, which effectively rules out iron deficiency. Furthermore, her red blood cell (RBC) count is elevated despite the low hemoglobin, yielding a Mentzer index (MCV/RBC count) of less than 13. This combination of severe microcytosis, an elevated RBC count, and normal to high iron stores is the classic presentation of thalassemia minor (trait). The definitive next step in management to confirm this diagnosis is hemoglobin electrophoresis, which typically demonstrates an elevated hemoglobin A2 fraction in beta-thalassemia trait.
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Anahtar Kavram
Patients presenting with microcytic anemia, an elevated red blood cell count, and normal iron studies (normal or elevated ferritin) should be evaluated for thalassemia trait using hemoglobin electrophoresis.