Paramedics transport a patient to the trauma bay after he experienced a sudden loss of consciousness at his workplace. The patient's coworkers state that he abruptly grabbed the back of his head, complained of severe dizziness and nausea, and then collapsed. Medical records indicate he is 62 years old and has a long-standing history of medication nonadherence for essential hypertension. Currently, his blood pressure is 198/115 mmHg, and his heart rate is 54/min. Neurological assessment shows a profoundly lethargic patient who only localizes to painful stimuli and has irregular respirations. Non-contrast cranial computed tomography (CT) demonstrates a 4.2-cm hyperdense collection in the right cerebellar hemisphere, associated with compression of the fourth ventricle and significant dilation of the lateral ventricles. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Emergent suboccipital craniectomy and hematoma evacuationCevap
- BPlacement of an external ventricular drain and transfer to the intensive care unit
- CInitiation of an intravenous labetalol infusion for strict blood pressure control
- DAdministration of intravenous dexamethasone and observation
- EImmediate performance of a lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis