A 74-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit with septic shock secondary to a severe complicated urinary tract infection. He has a history of neurogenic bladder managed with clean intermittent catheterization. On admission, his temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . He receives aggressive fluid resuscitation and is started on empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin. By hospital day 3, his condition has significantly improved; he is afebrile, hemodynamically stable off vasopressors, and transferred to the general medical floor. Blood cultures and a urine culture obtained on admission both yield *Enterococcus faecalis*. Susceptibility testing indicates the organism is sensitive to ampicillin, vancomycin, linezolid, and daptomycin, but intrinsically resistant to cephalosporins. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Discontinue the current regimen and begin intravenous ampicillinCevap
- BDiscontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- CDiscontinue piperacillin-tazobactam and continue intravenous vancomycin
- DDiscontinue the current regimen and begin intravenous daptomycin
- EContinue the current regimen of piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin