A 42-year-old man is hospitalized for community-acquired pneumonia. He has a 15-year history of ankylosing spondylitis. On admission two days ago, a sputum Gram stain and culture grew *Streptococcus pneumoniae* that is pan-sensitive to all standard antimicrobial agents, and he was appropriately started on targeted intravenous ceftriaxone. Over the past 48 hours, he has received 4 liters of intravenous crystalloid fluids. Today, he develops acute-onset severe shortness of breath and orthopnea. His temperature is C ( F), blood pressure is mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 26/min. Pulse oximetry shows 86% on room air. Physical examination reveals an early blowing diastolic murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border. Pulmonary auscultation reveals bilateral crackles in the middle and lower lung fields. Laboratory studies show:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): mU/L
Total T4: g/dL (Normal: - g/dL)
Arterial blood gas (room air):
pH:
pCO : mm Hg
pO : mm Hg
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AEscalate antibiotic therapy to intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- BAdminister inhaled albuterol and intravenous methylprednisolone
- Administer intravenous furosemideCevap
- DInitiate oral levothyroxine
- ECalculate the expected carbon dioxide level using Winter's formula
Cevap
While treating his pneumonia, the administration of 4 liters of intravenous crystalloid fluids acutely increased his intravascular volume. In the setting of chronic aortic regurgitation, this sudden increase in preload overwhelmed the left ventricle, resulting in elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, backward failure, and acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema (evidenced by orthopnea, severe dyspnea, and bilateral crackles). The most appropriate next step in management is diuresis with intravenous furosemide to reduce preload, clear the pulmonary edema, and improve oxygenation.