A -year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to confusion, fever, and repeated episodes of vomiting over the last hours. She has a history of major depressive disorder treated with citalopram, and migraine headaches for which she recently started taking sumatriptan. Her husband notes she complained of some right-sided pelvic pain yesterday but thought it was a muscle strain. Temperature is (), pulse is , respirations are , and blood pressure is . She is visibly diaphoretic and agitated. Neurologic examination reveals normal muscle tone without clonus. Abdominal examination reveals a non-distended, soft abdomen with normal bowel sounds. However, careful examination of the groin reveals a , firm, exquisitely tender, and violaceous mass located inferior to the right inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral artery pulse. Laboratory results reveal:
Leukocyte count:
Serum lactate:
Serum bicarbonate:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis
- BInsertion of a nasogastric tube and serial abdominal examinations
- CAdministration of intravenous cyproheptadine
- Emergent surgical explorationCevap
- EArterial blood gas analysis to assess acid-base status