A 61-year-old female is evaluated in the hospital on day 4 of admission for a non-healing right foot ulcer. She has a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated by severe peripheral neuropathy. On admission, she presented with localized erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage from a deep plantar ulcer. A probe-to-bone test was positive. She was hemodynamically stable with no signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome. A deep bone biopsy was obtained for culture, and she was empirically started on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam.
Today, her erythema has significantly improved. She remains afebrile and hemodynamically stable. The bone biopsy culture results are now available, demonstrating heavy growth of two organisms. Blood cultures show no growth.
The antimicrobial susceptibility report is as follows:
| Antimicrobial | *Proteus mirabilis* | *Bacteroides fragilis* |
|---|---|---|
| Ampicillin | Resistant | Not tested |
| Cefazolin | Resistant | Not tested |
| Ceftriaxone | Susceptible | Not tested |
| Ciprofloxacin | Resistant | Not tested |
| Clindamycin | Not tested | Resistant |
| Metronidazole | Not tested | Susceptible |
| Meropenem | Susceptible | Susceptible |
| Piperacillin-tazobactam | Susceptible | Susceptible |
Based on these results, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's antimicrobial management?
- ADiscontinue vancomycin and continue piperacillin-tazobactam.
- BDiscontinue current antibiotics and initiate meropenem.
- Discontinue current antibiotics and initiate ceftriaxone and metronidazole.Cevap
- DContinue the current empiric regimen of vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam.
- EDiscontinue current antibiotics and initiate ciprofloxacin and metronidazole.