A -year-old woman, gravida , para , at weeks gestation presents to the clinic for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She reports normal fetal movement and denies uterine contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Her first pregnancy was complicated by early-onset neonatal sepsis in the infant; blood cultures from the newborn grew *Streptococcus agalactiae*. The patient has a medical history significant for a severe allergic reaction to amoxicillin during childhood, which resulted in anaphylaxis and required epinephrine administration. During the current pregnancy, a midstream urine culture obtained at weeks gestation showed no growth. Her vital signs and physical examination today are unremarkable. The fetal heart rate is /min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step regarding the prevention of early-onset neonatal infection in this patient?
- Obtain a rectovaginal swab for *Streptococcus agalactiae* culture and antimicrobial susceptibility testingCevap
- BPlan for empiric administration of intravenous vancomycin during labor without obtaining a screening swab
- CPlan for empiric administration of intravenous clindamycin during labor without obtaining a screening swab
- DPlan for empiric administration of intravenous cefazolin during labor without obtaining a screening swab
- EObtain a rectovaginal swab today and plan to administer intrapartum prophylaxis only if the culture is positive