A 71-year-old man is evaluated on the surgical ward on postoperative day 4 after an open distal pancreatectomy. His past medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and ischemic heart disease. Over the past 12 hours, he has developed progressively worsening shortness of breath and a new cough productive of yellow-green sputum. Temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 112/min, respirations are 24/min, and blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg. Oxygen saturation is 91% on room air. Cardiovascular examination reveals a regular rhythm with no murmurs, and the jugular venous pressure is normal. Pulmonary auscultation reveals focal coarse crackles and egophony over the right lower lung field, without wheezing. The abdominal incision is clean and well-approximated. A portable chest radiograph demonstrates a new consolidation in the right lower lobe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's condition?
- AAdminister an intravenous loop diuretic and strict fluid restriction
- BInitiate immediate therapy with broad-coverage antimicrobials to prevent clinical deterioration
- Collect respiratory and blood samples for culture prior to starting antimicrobial agentsCevap
- DPrescribe inhaled short-acting bronchodilators and intravenous methylprednisolone
- EProvide targeted respiratory physiotherapy and maximize daily walking