A 10-year-old girl is evaluated in the hospital on day 3 of her admission for acute hematogenous osteomyelitis of the left proximal tibia. Upon admission, her temperature was 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg, and heart rate was 118/min. She had severe left leg pain, localized swelling over the proximal tibia, and an inability to bear weight. Magnetic resonance imaging of the left lower extremity demonstrated marrow edema and a small subperiosteal abscess. She was empirically started on intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone. Today, she is clinically improved, her pain has decreased, and she has been afebrile for the past 24 hours. Blood cultures drawn on admission are now growing Staphylococcus aureus. Susceptibility testing shows the organism is resistant to penicillin, but susceptible to oxacillin, cefazolin, clindamycin, and vancomycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- Discontinue vancomycin and ceftriaxone, and begin intravenous cefazolinCevap
- BDiscontinue ceftriaxone and continue intravenous vancomycin
- CMaintain the current regimen of vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- DDiscontinue vancomycin and ceftriaxone, and begin intravenous daptomycin
- EAdd intravenous gentamicin to the current regimen