A 71-year-old woman is evaluated in the intensive care unit for progressive abdominal distension and altered mental status. She was admitted four days ago for severe *Clostridioides difficile* infection and was appropriately started on oral vancomycin. Today, she is lethargic and confused. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals a markedly distended, tympanitic abdomen with diffuse tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. She has had no bowel movements in the past hours. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum creatinine level of . An abdominal radiograph demonstrates colonic dilation measuring in the transverse colon, with loss of haustral markings and no free intraperitoneal air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's infection?
- Add intravenous metronidazole and administer vancomycin per rectumCevap
- BDiscontinue oral vancomycin and initiate intravenous vancomycin
- CSubstitute oral vancomycin with oral fidaxomicin
- DAdd intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam to the current regimen
- EDiscontinue oral vancomycin and perform fecal microbiota transplantation