An -year-old boy is evaluated on the pediatric ward for sudden onset of respiratory distress. He has a medical history significant for homozygous hemoglobin S disease. He was admitted days ago for a severe vaso-occlusive pain episode affecting his bilateral lower extremities, which has been managed with intravenous hydration and morphine. Today, he developed a new-onset fever with a temperature of , a respiratory rate of , and sharp right-sided chest pain. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of on room air. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds and crackles in the right lower lung field. Laboratory studies show that his hemoglobin level has dropped from a baseline of to , and his leukocyte count is . A chest radiograph demonstrates a new right lower lobe consolidation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Red blood cell transfusion and intravenous administration of a third-generation cephalosporin and a macrolideCevap
- BAdministration of systemic corticosteroids, inhaled albuterol, and a viral respiratory panel
- CIntravenous administration of furosemide and strict fluid restriction
- DEmpiric administration of intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam while withholding blood transfusion
- EImmediate transport to radiology for a computed tomography pulmonary angiography