Seeking evaluation for worsening fatigue and irregular vaginal bleeding, a 46-year-old woman presents to the gynecology clinic. For the past eight months, her menstrual cycles have become highly unpredictable, varying from to days in length. When she does menstruate, the bleeding lasts up to days and is extremely heavy, often requiring her to use two maxi pads simultaneously. Her previous cycles were regular, occurring every days. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, obesity, and hypothyroidism. Her current medications are metformin and levothyroxine. Vital signs include a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and heart rate of . Her BMI is . Pelvic examination demonstrates a normal-appearing cervix; the uterus is normal in size, mobile, and non-tender without palpable adnexal masses. A urine beta-hCG test is negative. Laboratory studies reveal a hemoglobin concentration of .
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- BImmediate insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device
- CMeasurement of free thyroxine (T4) without thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
- DReassurance that these represent expected perimenopausal transitions
- EMeasurement of serum total testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS)