A 65-year-old man with a history of ischemic heart disease, hypertension, and recurrent ventricular arrhythmias comes to the clinic reporting progressive fatigue, muscle aches, and joint pain for the past 4 weeks. He was hospitalized 5 months ago for sustained ventricular tachycardia and was discharged on a new oral medication. His temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F). Physical examination shows symmetrical swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands. There is a mild erythematous rash over his cheeks and the bridge of his nose. Laboratory studies show a normal complete blood count and normal renal function. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-histone antibodies are positive. Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Discontinue the current antiarrhythmic medication and observeCevap
- BAdminister intravenous furosemide and obtain an echocardiogram
- CInitiate empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- DPrescribe high-dose systemic corticosteroids and administer the live-attenuated zoster vaccine
- EOrder a comprehensive paraneoplastic autoantibody panel