An -year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a routine follow-up. She is accompanied by her son, who assists with her activities of daily living. Her medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and mild neurocognitive disorder. During the visit, the son expresses concern because he has noticed that the patient's urine in her bedside commode has appeared cloudy and distinctly malodorous over the last hours. He is worried she may have a urinary tract infection, as she was treated for one six months ago. Upon direct questioning, the patient is pleasant and conversant, remaining at her cognitive baseline. She explicitly denies experiencing any dysuria, increased urinary frequency, urinary urgency, flank pain, or subjective fevers. Her vital signs include a temperature of C ( F), blood pressure of mmHg, heart rate of /min, and respiratory rate of /min. Abdominal examination is soft and non-tender, with no suprapubic discomfort or costovertebral angle tenderness. A clean-catch urinalysis obtained in the clinic reveals positive leukocyte esterase, positive nitrites, and white blood cells per high-power field. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Reassurance and observationCevap
- BInitiate empiric therapy with oral nitrofurantoin
- CSend urine for culture and prescribe antibiotics based on sensitivities
- DAdvise increased oral fluid intake and repeat the urinalysis in one week
- EInitiate empiric therapy with oral levofloxacin