A 78-year-old female resident of a skilled nursing facility is brought to the outpatient clinic by her daughter for a routine health maintenance visit. The daughter expresses concern because the nursing staff recently noted that the patient's urine has become malodorous and cloudy over the past three days. The patient has a medical history significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and osteoarthritis of the knees. When asked, the patient denies any dysuria, increased urinary frequency, or urgency. She also reports no suprapubic discomfort, flank pain, fever, or chills. Her baseline mental status is alert and oriented to person, place, and time, and the daughter confirms there has been no recent confusion, agitation, or behavioral changes. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 132/82 mmHg, heart rate of 76/min, and respiratory rate of 14/min. Physical examination reveals a non-tender abdomen, absent costovertebral angle tenderness, and normal bowel sounds. A point-of-care urinalysis demonstrates positive leukocyte esterase, positive nitrites, and 15-20 white blood cells per high-power field, along with numerous bacteria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Provide reassurance and observation onlyCevap
- BInitiate empiric oral ciprofloxacin therapy
- CInitiate empiric oral nitrofurantoin therapy
- DSend a urine sample for culture and susceptibility testing
- EAdminister a single dose of intravenous ceftriaxone