An infectious diseases consultation is requested for a 48-year-old female who was admitted to the hospital three days ago with subacute onset of fever, fatigue, and dyspnea. Initial evaluation revealed a new holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla. A transesophageal echocardiogram confirmed a oscillating vegetation on the posterior mitral leaflet. Upon admission, three sets of blood cultures were drawn, and she was started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone. Today, the patient is clinically stable, and her temperature is (). The microbiology laboratory reports that all three blood culture sets are growing *Streptococcus mutans*. The isolate has a penicillin minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of (highly susceptible) and is also susceptible to ceftriaxone. Based on the culture and susceptibility data, which of the following is the most appropriate modification to her pharmacotherapy?
- Discontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous ceftriaxoneCevap
- BContinue the current regimen of intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CDiscontinue ceftriaxone and continue intravenous vancomycin
- DSwitch the regimen to intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- ESwitch the regimen to intravenous daptomycin