A 34-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of secondary amenorrhea. Her last menstrual period was 14 months ago. At that time, she underwent a dilation and curettage for an incomplete abortion, which was complicated by postpartum endometritis requiring intravenous antibiotics. Prior to this pregnancy, her menstrual cycles were regular every 28 days. She reports no hot flashes, galactorrhea, weight changes, or visual disturbances. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m². Physical examination reveals normal secondary sexual characteristics and no evidence of hirsutism or acne. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Serum laboratory testing shows normal levels of follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, prolactin, and thyroid-stimulating hormone. A 10-day course of oral medroxyprogesterone acetate is administered, but no withdrawal bleeding occurs. Subsequently, she is given a 21-day course of oral estrogen followed by 7 days of progestin, which also fails to induce withdrawal bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- Intrauterine synechiaeCevap
- BPolycystic ovary syndrome
- CPrimary ovarian insufficiency
- DFunctional hypothalamic amenorrhea
- ESecondary hypothyroidism