A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day 3 of admission for community-acquired pneumonia. His medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoarthritis. On admission, he presented with a temperature of 38.9°C (102.0°F), a productive cough, and a right lower lobe consolidation on chest radiography. He was started on empiric therapy with intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin.
Sputum and blood cultures obtained on admission have now finalized, both growing *Streptococcus pneumoniae*. Susceptibility testing of the isolate demonstrates the following:
| Antimicrobial | Interpretation |
|---|---|
| Penicillin | Susceptible (MIC 0.03 mcg/mL) |
| Amoxicillin | Susceptible |
| Ceftriaxone | Susceptible |
| Levofloxacin | Susceptible |
| Azithromycin | Resistant |
Today, the patient reports feeling much better. He has been afebrile for the past 28 hours. His heart rate is 78/min, blood pressure is 128/82 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. He is tolerating a regular diet without difficulty. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his antimicrobial management?
- Transition to oral amoxicillinCevap
- BTransition to oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
- CTransition to oral levofloxacin
- DContinue intravenous ceftriaxone alone
- EContinue intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin