During a high school basketball game, a -year-old adolescent boy suddenly experiences excruciating left-sided scrotal pain and collapses on the court. He is immediately transported to the hospital by his coach. The patient reports severe, unrelenting pain radiating to his lower abdomen and has vomited twice in the triage area. He is otherwise healthy and takes no medications. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and a pulse of . Physical examination reveals a swollen, exquisitely tender left hemiscrotum. The left testicle is firm, positioned higher than the right, and lies in a transverse orientation. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the left side but intact on the right. There is no relief of pain upon manual elevation of the scrotum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AColor Doppler ultrasonography of the scrotum
- BIntramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
- Immediate surgical explorationCevap
- DScrotal elevation and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- EUrinalysis and urine culture