A male patient, aged 45, presents to the emergency room with a 7-day history of escalating mid-thoracic back pain and subjective fevers. He has a known medical history of intravenous substance use disorder. Over the last 24 hours, he noted rapidly progressive weakness in both legs and an inability to void urine. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), heart rate of 110/min, and blood pressure of 122/78 mm Hg. Neurologic examination reveals 2/5 motor strength in the bilateral lower extremities, a distinct loss of pain and temperature sensation below the umbilicus, and 3+ patellar reflexes with bilateral Babinski signs. Bladder ultrasound reveals a post-void residual volume of 650 mL. Empiric intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone are promptly initiated. Magnetic resonance imaging of the spine demonstrates a peripherally enhancing anterior epidural collection spanning T9-T11, causing severe compression of the spinal cord. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AContinuation of current intravenous antibiotics with close neurologic monitoring
- BHigh-dose intravenous methylprednisolone administration
- CCT-guided percutaneous needle aspiration of the fluid collection
- Urgent surgical laminectomy and debridementCevap
- ELumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid culture and analysis