A 74-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son for evaluation of urinary incontinence that has worsened over the past 6 months. The patient experiences sudden, overwhelming urges to urinate and frequently leaks large amounts of urine before she can reach the bathroom. These episodes occur during both the day and night. She has attempted pelvic floor muscle exercises and timed voiding for the last 3 months with minimal benefit. The patient denies dysuria, hematuria, or abdominal pain. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and mild Alzheimer dementia. Her current medications are amlodipine, atorvastatin, and donepezil. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination demonstrates healthy, well-estrogenized vaginal mucosa without evidence of pelvic organ prolapse. A bladder scan shows a post-void residual volume of 30 mL. Urinalysis is negative for leukocyte esterase, nitrites, and blood. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Prescription of oral mirabegronCevap
- BPrescription of oral oxybutynin
- CInsertion of a midurethral sling
- DPrescription of empirical oral ciprofloxacin
- EReassurance that this is a physiologic consequence of aging