A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from a skilled nursing facility due to severe abdominal pain and intractable vomiting over the past . The accompanying documentation notes he has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus since yesterday. His medical history is significant for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. His temperature is (), pulse is , and blood pressure is . Physical examination reveals a significantly distended and tympanic abdomen. Examination of the groin shows a , tense, erythematous bulge in the right inguinal region that is exquisitely tender to palpation. Attempts to gently reduce the mass are unsuccessful. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate level of (normal: ). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Urgent surgical explorationCevap
- BNasogastric tube decompression and serial abdominal examinations
- CComputed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- DAttempted manual reduction of the mass under procedural sedation
- EIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and observation