A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of progressively worsening shortness of breath, orthopnea, and lower extremity swelling. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history but quit 5 years ago. He also has a 10-year history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis. His joint symptoms were poorly controlled with methotrexate alone, so etanercept was added 4 months ago, resulting in significant improvement in his joint pain. His other medical conditions include mild depression, for which he takes fluoxetine. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of . Physical examination reveals jugular venous distention. Lung auscultation demonstrates bilateral bibasilar crackles and scattered expiratory wheezes. Cardiac examination reveals tachycardia with a prominent S3 gallop. There is bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. Joint examination shows no active synovitis. Laboratory studies show:
Brain natriuretic peptide:
Arterial blood gas on room air:
Chest radiography reveals cardiomegaly, bilateral alveolar infiltrates, and small bilateral pleural effusions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Discontinue etanercept and administer intravenous furosemideCevap
- BAdminister systemic corticosteroids and nebulized albuterol
- CObtain blood cultures, continue current medications, and initiate intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- DAdminister intravenous sodium bicarbonate and prepare for endotracheal intubation
- EDiscontinue fluoxetine and administer cyproheptadine