A 76-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her family with a 48-hour history of severe, colicky abdominal pain, intractable nausea, and bilious vomiting. She reports no passage of flatus or stool since the symptoms began. Her medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has never undergone abdominal surgery.
Her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg, pulse is 115/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Physical examination reveals a distended, tympanic abdomen with high-pitched, hyperactive bowel sounds. There is mild, diffuse abdominal tenderness. Examination of the right groin reveals a 4-cm, firm, erythematous, and exquisitely tender mass located inferior to the inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral artery pulsation.
Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of 17,200/mm³ and a serum lactate of 3.4 mmol/L (normal: 0.5-1.0 mmol/L).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Emergent surgical explorationCevap
- BNasogastric tube decompression and nonoperative observation
- CCT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- DAttempted manual reduction under conscious sedation
- EIntravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and observation