An internal medicine rapid response team is called to evaluate a 25-year-old hospitalized man for acute-onset severe agitation and chest discomfort. The patient was admitted yesterday for a soft tissue infection of the right arm and has been receiving intravenous cefazolin. When the physician arrives, the patient is pacing the room, visibly sweating, and shouting at the nursing staff. Vital signs are temperature 37.9°C (100.2°F), blood pressure 178/112 mm Hg, pulse 132/min, and respirations 24/min. Physical examination reveals bilateral mydriasis and significant diaphoresis. A friend who was visiting the patient abruptly left the room right before the episode started. An ECG demonstrates sinus tachycardia with no ST-segment changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Intravenous lorazepamCevap
- BIntravenous metoprolol
- CIntramuscular haloperidol
- DIntravenous naloxone
- EIntravenous flumazenil