A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician reporting intermittent, reddish-brown discharge from her right nipple over the past 3 weeks. She has noticed small stains on her bra but denies any localized breast pain, overlying skin changes, or fever. Her menstrual cycles are regular, and she takes no daily medications. She has no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the breasts are symmetric with no skin dimpling, erythema, or nipple retraction. Palpation reveals no discrete masses or axillary lymphadenopathy. Gentle pressure around the right areola elicits a single drop of bloody discharge from a single duct. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the evaluation of this patient?
- Mammographic imaging and ultrasonography of the breastsCevap
- BMeasurement of serum prolactin and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels
- CReassurance and routine clinical follow-up in six months
- DEmpiric treatment with oral cephalexin
- ECore needle biopsy of the right retroareolar tissue