A -year-old woman is evaluated in the surgical step-down unit due to an acute exacerbation of abdominal pain. She was admitted yesterday for a bowel obstruction attributed to adhesions from a previous pelvic surgery. Initial treatment consisted of intravenous hydration, fasting, and placement of a nasogastric tube. Over the past two hours, her symptoms have shifted from colicky and intermittent discomfort to severe, unyielding pain. Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of , heart rate of , and respiratory rate of . Abdominal examination demonstrates marked rigidity, involuntary guarding, and focal rebound tenderness. Blood tests reveal a white blood cell count of with neutrophils and a serum lactate level of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate open abdominal explorationCevap
- BComputed tomography of the abdomen with intravenous contrast
- CAdministration of oral water-soluble contrast medium
- DInitiation of piperacillin-tazobactam and continued observation
- EPlacement of a percutaneous abdominal drain