A 71-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department due to the acute onset of severe, unremitting groin pain accompanied by nausea and green-colored emesis over the past 8 hours. She also reports a failure to pass gas or stool since yesterday. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 118/min, and blood pressure is 95/60 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a moderately distended abdomen. High-pitched, tinkling bowel sounds are auscultated. Below the right inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral artery pulsation, there is a 3-cm, tense, exquisitely tender mass. The skin overlying the mass appears erythematous and slightly violaceous. The mass cannot be pushed back into the abdominal cavity. Laboratory analysis is notable for a leukocyte count of 17,000/mm³ and a serum lactate concentration of 4.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Urgent operative interventionCevap
- BManual reduction of the mass under procedural sedation
- CCT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast
- DIntravenous broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy and clinical observation
- EContinued nasogastric decompression and serial physical examinations