Rheumatology consultation is requested for a 74-year-old man who developed sudden, excruciating pain and swelling in his right knee overnight. The patient is currently recovering on the surgical ward on postoperative day 4 following an open cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis. His medical background is significant for long-standing hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes, and stage 3b chronic kidney disease. He is receiving prophylactic subcutaneous enoxaparin. Temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F). The right knee is markedly erythematous, warm to the touch, and held in slight flexion; any attempted movement elicits severe distress. Laboratory evaluation reveals a serum creatinine of 2.3 mg/dL. An ultrasound-guided diagnostic arthrocentesis yields 35,000 leukocytes/mm³ (85% neutrophils). Microscopic examination under polarized light demonstrates multiple rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence. Gram stain of the synovial fluid is negative for microorganisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intra-articular glucocorticoid injectionCevap
- BIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- COral indomethacin
- DOral colchicine
- EInitiation of oral allopurinol