A -year-old woman comes to the clinic due to a -month history of inability to conceive. She and her husband have regular, unprotected intercourse. Menarche was at age . Her menstrual cycles were previously regular, but they became irregular years ago. For the past months, she has had no menses. She reports intermittent episodes of sudden warmth and sweating, particularly at night. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is . Pelvic examination shows pale, thin vaginal mucosa with loss of rugae. The uterus is of normal size and adnexa are nonpalpable.
Laboratory studies show the following:
| Laboratory Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Urine -hCG | Negative | Negative |
| Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) | ||
| Luteinizing hormone (LH) | ||
| Prolactin | ||
| Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) | ||
| Estradiol |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
- AClomiphene citrate therapy
- BMRI of the brain
- CAdministration of a progestin challenge
- Karyotype analysisCevap
- EMeasurement of serum -hydroxyprogesterone