A 62-year-old male arrives at the urgent care clinic reporting sudden, agonizing pain in his left lower extremity that started two hours prior. His medical background is significant for an anterior wall myocardial infarction three weeks ago. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the left lower extremity reveals a pale, cool leg distal to the knee. While the left femoral pulse is easily palpable, both popliteal and pedal pulses are absent. The patient exhibits a newly developed inability to dorsiflex his left foot and reports numbness over the dorsal aspect. Bedside handheld continuous-wave Doppler demonstrates absent arterial signals in the distal left leg. An intravenous heparin infusion is promptly started. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Emergent surgical embolectomyCevap
- BCT angiography of the lower extremities
- CCatheter-directed thrombolysis
- DLower extremity venous duplex ultrasonography
- EProphylactic four-compartment fasciotomy