A 24-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a routine follow-up evaluation. Three months ago, she was prescribed a combined oral contraceptive pill for primary dysmenorrhea and mild facial acne. She reports that her menstrual cramps have significantly improved and she is satisfied with the medication. She has no other medical conditions and takes no other medications. She denies any fatigue, weight changes, palpitations, heat or cold intolerance, or changes in bowel habits.
Her blood pressure is 112/72 mm Hg, and pulse is 70/min. Physical examination reveals a normal-sized, non-tender thyroid gland with no palpable nodules. Her skin is warm and dry, and there is mild residual acne on her chin.
Laboratory studies are obtained as part of a routine health screening:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): (Normal: )
Free thyroxine (Free T4): (Normal: )
Total thyroxine (Total T4): (Normal: )
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AOrder a radioactive iodine uptake scan
- BMeasure serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate levels
- Reassurance and continuation of current regimenCevap
- DMeasure serum free triiodothyronine (Free T3) levels
- EInitiate low-dose methimazole therapy